I never mentioned divorce rates. The issue is what's the standard of proof? In a court room we don't need certainty. In a criminal trial we need "beyond a reasonable doubt" to convict. In a civil trial it's simply "the preponderance of the evidence". In science, a hypothesis is accepted based on something similar to the preponderance of the evidence. Your standard here for this particular discussion seems to be unreasonably high. And not a standard that anyone applies to any other question. Certainly it's well beyond what would be accepted as strong supporting data in the social sciences.
Also, your own argument - that the confidence with which one express their argument is inversely proportional to the intelligence or veracity of the person making the argument - seems to be working against you here. You are expressing some kind of existential certainty here that we could never establish some real knowledge about trends in honesty. I don't see why that's the case. For example, a simple public survey or similar data could easily exist that would provide strong evidence.
If you are saying that's still not KNOWING....well then you are just questioning the nature of knowledge and reality at that point. And what's the point of that and how is it relevant to this discussion? It's not.
Oops, sorry. Was a couple others who brought up divorce rates, not you.
You mentioned hypothesis. Okay. At
best, the statement "a person's word was their bond" is an extremely weak, entirely unprovable, hypothesis. But sure, people can hypothesize all they want. I don't object to the hypothesis being given. I merely voiced skepticism about it, and pointed out that it's utterly unprovable. If people want to run around believing in the unprovable, great. Doesn't make a thing true, though. If the poster in question said, well that's what I
believe, I'd have dropped the argument right there. He didn't do that, he stated it as a fact (and went on, in a later post, to laughably refer to it as a fact explicitly).
As for courts of law and preponderance of evidence, it's exceedingly unlikely any court of law would attempt to consider such an overly broad generalization as "people kept their word more 80 years ago than today". Judges would refuse to hear any such case for the exact same reasons I'm stating here. It's a laughably generalized, entirely unprovable, statement for which nobody could possibly even establish a preponderance of evidence. God, if he exists and keeps track of such stuff, might be able to tell us the answer. Humans? Not so much.
Disagree? Then please tell us, of the 130,000,000 people alive 80 years ago, what is total number of times, for all 130,000,000, where someone gave their word about something? Break that down by how many times the word given was kept, and how many times it was broken.
What's that you say, no such data exists? Well, what about for half? No? One percent? No? How about for any single person? Not really?
When we cannot even offer factual evidence about one single person 80 years ago, how can anybody claim a preponderance of evidence for one hundred thirty
million people?
So much for preponderance of evidence, eh?