OT: No one has answered my baseball rules question?
- Thread starter zappaa
- Start date
What?
If the play occurred with two outs, of course the game would go on.
If the play occurred with less than two outs…game is over.
So back to the original question, is it scored a hit if the batter never runs it out.
I can tell you, no umpires would be watching, they’d be running in if it was less than two outs and a lone runner at 3rd
I believe it would be credited as a hit unless the other team actually went through the process of getting him out at first (which they wouldn’t, since it’s meaningless).
I do also, I really don’t think anyone would bother watching if he touched 1st or not
Hmm.. interesting... they do make walk-off HR's run the bases. So, unless "the other team actually went through the process of getting him out at first" I guess the game is over by forfeit? No hit would be recorded because runner never reached first base?
do you have a definitive answer or not? You have played more baseball than I have ever watched. You must have a source somewhere that can give a definitive answer.
It’s actually a good question…this specific scenario isn’t covered in any case book that I can find, and the rules aren’t totally clear. Thinking about it from an umpires point of view, I wouldn’t be making any calls on the play…run scores, and I head home. However, you do make me question how the official scorer should handle it.
You
With a lone base runner at 3rd and less than two outs, the game is over if he scores …period end.
There’s a technicality involved, that’s it.
If the hitter celebrates instead of touching 1st it has no relevance to the outcome of the game…it’s over.
My contention is no one would even bother to watch if he touched first
There’s no definitive answer needed.
With a lone base runner at 3rd and less than two outs, the game is over if he scores …period end.
There’s a technicality involved, that’s it.
If the hitter celebrates instead of touching 1st it has no relevance to the outcome of the game…it’s over.
My contention is no one would even bother to watch if he touched first
And no official scorer (we as players actually knew all the official scorers around the league) at any ballpark would take the hit away if it in fact it was an obvious clean base hit and the playing of the ball was inconsequential.
It reminds me of the story when my dad went 3 for 3 in a game, and the paper the next day had him at 2-3 in the box score.
He confronted the official scorer and asked him what happened to his 3rd hit…. The scorer told him “relax Yogi, it was a typographical ERROR, my dad said “my ass error, it was a clean base hit”😉
It reminds me of the story when my dad went 3 for 3 in a game, and the paper the next day had him at 2-3 in the box score.
He confronted the official scorer and asked him what happened to his 3rd hit…. The scorer told him “relax Yogi, it was a typographical ERROR, my dad said “my ass error, it was a clean base hit”😉
Runs do not count even if a runner is tagged as long as the runner was forced to advance to the base. So not all runs count on a tag play it depends on if the runner was forced to go to the next base. Also this is not a timing play so even if runner reached home before the tag the run does not count.
I have no idea what you’re talking about, the situation is a lone runner on 3rd with less than two outs
Ok my interpretation of the MLB rule book
section 5.08
shall disallow the run, call out the offending player and order the game resumed. If, with two out, the batter-run- ner refuses to advance to and touch first base, the umpire shall disallow the run, call out the offending player, and order the game resumed. If, before two are out, the batter-runner refuses to advance to and touch first base, the run shall count, but the offending player shall be called out
7.10 Appeal
states that an appeal must be made by the next pitch or before the team Abandons the field.
my read:
in this case umpire could call him out. If he fails to call him out the team in the field could apeal. Absent the appeal he is not out and gets credited with hit. Same as if he missed first base
section 5.08
shall disallow the run, call out the offending player and order the game resumed. If, with two out, the batter-run- ner refuses to advance to and touch first base, the umpire shall disallow the run, call out the offending player, and order the game resumed. If, before two are out, the batter-runner refuses to advance to and touch first base, the run shall count, but the offending player shall be called out
7.10 Appeal
states that an appeal must be made by the next pitch or before the team Abandons the field.
my read:
in this case umpire could call him out. If he fails to call him out the team in the field could apeal. Absent the appeal he is not out and gets credited with hit. Same as if he missed first base
I was responding to the statement that a run would count if the runner reaches home before a tag is made with two outs. Even if a tag play the run would not count as long as a force was in play.
Exactly. So these always end up as hits. No one appeals that he failed to touch, ump doesn’t call them out.
they could appeal before they leave field. But who cares
I guarantee the 1st base umpire in this situation would have no idea if the hitter touched 1st….he’d be running in to hit the spread
So win win batter gets the hit. Ump gets the chow
but this is how the rules apply in my read
This happens with the current incarnation of the Yankees twice a game and it drives me completely insane. The problem is they KNOW the third strike was dropped/passed and they just stand there waiting to be tagged.
FORCE THE DAMNED THROW TO FIRST.
Errors happen.
